Free Download Pass4sure and Lead2pass PMI-SP Exam Question with PDF & VCE

August 22, 2014

Vendor: PMI
Exam Code: PMI-SP
Exam Name: PMI Scheduling Professional (PMI-SP)

QUESTION 1
You are the project manager of the NHQ Project. Management has set a conformance to the project schedule for your project at 0.95. What does this term mean?

A.    It means the largest schedule variance you can have is five percent.
B.    It is the earned value divided by the planned value for your project.
C.    It is the expectation of management to be 95 on schedule at 95 percent of the project.
D.    It means you will need to earn at least 95 cents per dollar invested in the project.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Conformance to schedule is a required adherence for the project’s schedule. In this instance, the project manager must not allow the schedule to slip more than five percent. Answer option B is incorrect. This is the description of the schedule performance index. Answer option D is incorrect. This is the description of the cost performance index. Answer option C is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the project performance.

QUESTION 2
Which one of the following estimate types is a form of expert judgment?

A.    Parametric estimate
B.    Analogous estimate
C.    Bottom-up estimate
D.    Definitive estimate

Answer: B
Explanation:
An analogous estimate is a form of expert judgment because it relies on historical information. The historical information, assuming that it is accurate, serves as the conduit to the expert that created the historical information.
Answer option C is incorrect. A bottom-up estimate creates an activity duration estimate for each work package in the WBS.
Answer option A is incorrect. Parametric estimating uses a parameter, such as 10 hours per fixture installation, as a base to predict the duration of the project. Answer option D is incorrect. A definitive estimate, also known as a bottom-up estimate, accounts
for the cost of each work package.

QUESTION 3
You are the project manager of the NHA Project. This project is expected to last one year with quarterly milestones throughout the year. Your project is supposed to be at the third milestone today but you’re likely only 60 percent complete. Your project has a BAC of $745,000 and you’ve spent $440,000 of the budget-to-date. What is your schedule performance index for this project?

A.    80
B.    1.02
C.    102
D.    0.80

Answer: D
Explanation:
The schedule performance index can be found by dividing the earned value by the planned value. In this project, it’s $447,000 divided by the $558,750 for a value of 0.80. Schedule performance index (SPI) is the measure of schedule efficiency on a project. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance.
SPI is the ratio of earned value to planned value. The SPI is calculated based on the following formula:
SPI = Earned Value (EV) / Planned Value (PV)
If the SPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance, whereas if the value is less than 1, it shows poor performance. The SPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target.
Answer option A is incorrect. "80" is not the same value as ".80". Answer option B is incorrect. 1.02 is the cost performance index. Answer option C is incorrect. 102 is not a valid calculation for this question.

QUESTION 4
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
The __________ includes a description of any collateral services required, such as performance reporting or post-project operational support for the procured item.
Answer: procurement SOW

QUESTION 5
Mark is the project manager of the GHQ Project. He is happily reporting that his project has a schedule performance index of 2.12. Management, however, does not think this is good news. What is the most likely reason why management does not like an SPI of 2.12?

A.    It is not good news because a larger number means the schedule duration estimates were likely to be wrong to begin with.
B.    They likely do not understand the SPI formula.
C.    It is not good news, as the number should be closer to 100 than 0.
D.    It is good news, but Mark may have large cost variances to achieve this value.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Cost and schedule performance indexes should be as close to 1 as possible. A larger value, such as 2.12, means that the schedule duration estimates were likely bloated or incorrect to begin with. Answer option B is incorrect. This is not the best choice for this question. Answer option C is incorrect. The number should not be close to 100; it should be close to 1. Answer option D is incorrect. While Mark may have crashed the schedule and driven up costs to achieve the SPI value, a more likely reason is that the time estimates were bloated.

QUESTION 6
You are the project manager of the NHT Project. This project has 12,345 office doors to install throughout a campus. Each of the doors costs the project $456 and requires special hardware to electronically lock and open the doors. You’ve gathered the project team before they begin the installation for a hands-on training. As a group you and the project team install 50 doors following a checklist of instructions so that every door will be installed exactly the same throughout the campus and with minimal waste. This is an example of what project execution technique?

A.    Preventive action
B.    Defect repair validation
C.    Implemented corrective action
D.    Quality control

Answer: A
Explanation:
This is an example of a preventive action as you’re working with the team before they install the doors to train them on the installation. The checklist is a quality control tool but the question was asking for a project execution activity. Preventive and corrective actions are part of project execution.
Answer option D is incorrect. Quality control is a controlling and monitoring process, not an executing process.
Answer option B is incorrect. The defect repair validation comes after the project team has corrected an error – something that has not occurred in this instance. Answer option C is incorrect. Corrective action is a response to something that needs to be corrected in the project.

QUESTION 7
Sam is the project manager of the NQQ project. He and the project team have completed the stakeholder identification process for his project. What is the main output of the identify stakeholders process?

A.    Communications management plan
B.    Stakeholder register
C.    Requirements
D.    Stakeholder management strategy

Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK, the main output of the identify stakeholders process is the stakeholder register. The stakeholder register is a project management document that contains a list of the stakeholders associated with the project. It assesses how they are involved in the project and identifies what role they play in the organization. The information in this document can be very perceptive and is meant for limited exchange only. It also contains relevant information about the stakeholders, such as their requirements, expectations, and influence on the project. Answer option A is incorrect. The communications management plan is an output of communications planning.
Answer option D is incorrect. The stakeholder management strategy is an output of stakeholder identification, but it is not the main output.
Answer option C is incorrect. Requirements are not an output of the stakeholder identification
process.

QUESTION 8
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Management has asked you not to communicate performance unless the CPI is less than 0.96 or the SPI dips below 0.98. What type of report would you create for management, if these instances develop in your project?

A.    Cost variance report
B.    Exceptions report
C.    Performance management report
D.    Schedule variance report

Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is simply an exception report. An exception report refers and documents the major mistakes, mishaps, and goofs. In other words, it itemizes the important and critically significant piece of documentation that is vital to the proper and effective functioning of a project. It does not document what has gone right, but rather documents what has gone wrong. Answer option C is incorrect. A performance management report is not a valid project management report.
Answer option A is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule. Answer option D is incorrect. The question is asked about cost and schedule so this answer would not be appropriate for both the cost and the schedule.

QUESTION 9
You are the project manager of the HQQ Project. Your project is running late by ten percent of where you should be at this time. Management is concerned. Considering that the project has a BAC of $567,899, you are thirty percent complete, and you have spent $179,450. What is this project’s to-complete performance index based on the current BAC?

A.    1.02
B.    0.010
C.    0.75
D.    0.95

Answer: A
Explanation:
This project is not performing well on schedule, but moderately well on costs. The project’s TCPI based on the current BAC is 1.02. To-complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the measured projection of the anticipated performance required to achieve either the BAC or the EAC. TCPI indicates the future required cost efficiency needed to achieve a target EAC (Estimate At Complete).Once approved, the EAC supersedes the BAC as the cost performance goal. Any significant difference between TCPI and the CPI needed to meet the EAC should be accounted for by management in their forecast of the final cost. The formula for TCPI is as follows:
TCPI = {(BAC-EV) /( BAC-AC)}
Answer option D is incorrect. 0.95 is the project’s TCPI value based on the estimate at completion.
Answer option C is incorrect. 0.75 is the project’s schedule performance index. Answer option B is incorrect. 0.010 is not a valid calculation.

QUESTION 10
Andy works as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. He is developing the schedule for the project. There are eight tools and techniques that a project manager can use to develop the project schedule. Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Schedule Development process?

A.    Schedule compression
B.    Reserve analysis
C.    Variance analysis
D.    Expert judgment

Answer: A
Explanation:
Schedule compression is a tool used as part of the Schedule Development process. The tools and techniques for schedule development are as follows:
Schedule network analysis
Critical path method
Critical chain method
Resource leveling
What-if scenario analysis
Applying leads and lags
Schedule compression
Scheduling tool
Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. These are not tools and techniques for schedule development.

QUESTION 11
You are the project manager for your organization. You have recorded the following duration estimates for an activity in your project: optimistic 20, most likely 45, pessimistic 90. What time will you record for this activity?

A.    48
B.    20o, 45m, 90p
C.    90
D.    45

Answer: A
Explanation:
This is an example of a three-point estimate. A three-point estimate records the optimistic, most likely, and the pessimistic duration, and then records an average for the predicted duration Three- point estimate is a way to enhance the accuracy of activity duration estimates. This concept is
originated with the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT). PERT charts the following three estimates: Most likely (TM): The duration of activity based on realistic factors such as resources assigned, interruptions, etc.
Optimistic (TO): The activity duration based on the best-case scenario Pessimistic (TP): The activity duration based on the worst-case scenario The expected (TE) activity duration is a weighted average of these three estimates:
TE = (TO + 4TM + TP) / 6
Duration estimates based on the above equations (sometimes simple average of the three estimates is also used) provide more accuracy. It can be calculated as follows:
TE = ( 20 + 45*4 + 90) / 6
= 290/6
=48
Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not the valid answers for this question.

QUESTION 12
Your project is forty percent complete though it was scheduled to be fifty percent complete as of today. Management has asked that you report on the schedule variance for your project. If your project has a BAC of $650,000 and you’ve spent $385,000 to date, what is the schedule variance value?

A.    -$75,500
B.    -$390,000
C.    -$487,500
D.    -$65,000

Answer: D
Explanation:
The schedule variance is found by subtracting the planned value from the earned value. The earned value is the percentage of the project completeness multiplied by the BAC. Planned value is the percentage of where the project should be at this time multiplied by the BAC. In this example, EV = 40% of BAC = 260,000, and PV = 50% of BAC = 325,000 SV = 260,000 – 325,000 = -65,000
Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance on a project. The variance notifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula:
SV = Earned Value (EV) – Planned Value (PV)
If the resulting schedule is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is right on target.
Answer options B, C, and A are incorrect. These are not valid calculations of the schedule variance.

QUESTION 13
Beth is the project manager for her organization. Her current project has many deliverables that have been defined at a high level, but the details of the deliverables are still unknown. In her project, Beth is planning in detail only the activities that are most imminent in the project work. This approach to project management planning is known as what?

A.    Imminent activity management
B.    Rolling wave planning
C.    Predecessor-only diagramming
D.    Decomposition

Answer: B
Explanation:
Rolling wave planning is a technique to plan and do the most imminent project work before moving onto the details that are far off in the project schedule and project plan. Rolling wave planning is a technique for performing progressive elaboration planning where the work to be accomplished in
the near future is planned in detail at a low level of the work breakdown structure. The work to be performed within another one or two reporting periods in the near future is planned in detail as work is being completed during the current period.
Answer option D is incorrect. Decomposition is the process of breaking down work packages into the activity list.
Answer options A and C are incorrect. These are not valid project management terms.

QUESTION 14
Gina is the project manager for her organization and she is working with her project team to define the project activities. In this project, the stakeholders are sensitive to the project completion date, so Gina is stressing to her project team members that while they need to provide and account for all of the project activities, they should focus on one work package in the WBS at a time. In order to start the decomposition of the project work packages into activities, Gina will need all of the following except for which one?

A.    Scope baseline
B.    Organizational process assets
C.    WBS
D.    Enterprise environmental factors

Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the PMBOK, Gina will not need the WBS directly, but will rely on the scope baseline. A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) in project management is a tool that defines a project and groups the project’s discrete work elements in a way that helps organize and define the total work scope of the project. A WBS element may be a product, data, a service, or any combination. WBS also provides the necessary framework for detailed cost estimating and control along with providing guidance for schedule development and control. Answer option A is incorrect. The scope baseline is an input to define the project activities. Answer option D is incorrect. Enterprise environmental factors are an input to define the project activities.
Answer option B is incorrect. Organizational process assets are an input to define the project activities.

QUESTION 15
You have created the project network diagram for the ABC project. You are exploring total float and free float for that project. Martin, a project team member, wants to know the difference between total float and free float. What is the difference between total float and free float?

A.    Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any project successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date.
B.    Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completiondate, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any project successors.
C.    Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completiondate, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any project predecessors.
D.    Total float is the amount of time a non-critical activity can be delayed without delaying any project successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion date.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Total float is the time you can delay an activity without delaying the project end date, whereas free float is on each activity and does not affect the early start date of successor activities. Float, also called slack, is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting any subsequent activities. There are two types of floats available: Free Float: It is the amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following schedule activities. Total Float: It is the total amount of time that a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date, or violating schedule constraint. Float is calculated by using the critical path method technique. Answer options C, A, and D are incorrect. These are not accurate definitions of free float and total float.

QUESTION 16
Jim is the project manager for his project. He and his project team are creating their duration estimates for the work packages in the WBS. For each activity, Jim is adding a few hours to the duration estimate in case something goes wrong during the completion of the work activity. Sarah, the project sponsor, does not approve of this and warns Jim of Parkinson’s Law. What is Parkinson’s Law?

A.    People will behave based on what their behavior brings them.
B.    As employees do repetitive tasks, duration should decrease.
C.    Work expands to fill the amount of time allotted to it.
D.    An exponential increase labor does not correlate to an exponential decrease in duration.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Parkinson’s Law states that work expands to fill the amount of time allotted to complete the work. If Jim allows 25 hours for a project team member to complete a 20-hour task, it will likely take the team member 25 hours to do the work.
Answer option A is incorrect. This is a description of the Expectancy Theory. Answer option B is incorrect. This is a description of the learning curve. Answer option D is incorrect. This is a description of a portion of the Law of Diminishing Returns.

QUESTION 17
Ben is the project manager for his organization. His project has 26 stakeholders this week and will have five additional stakeholders next week. How many more communication channels will Ben’s project have next week?

A.    140
B.    10
C.    325
D.    5

Answer: A
Explanation:
Ben’s project will have 140 more communication channels because of the five additional stakeholders. To solve the question, you will need to find the current stakeholder communication channels first, which is (26*25)/2= 325, and then find the difference of the number of channels for the five additional stakeholders. You can use the formula of N( N-1), where N is the number of
stakeholders. In this example, the formula would read: Total number of communication channels that Ben will have next = ((31*30)/2)-((26*25)/2 =140
Answer option D is incorrect. Five is the number of additional stakeholders. Answer option B is incorrect. 10 is the number of communication channels among just five stakeholders.
Answer option C is incorrect. 325 is the number of current communication channels.

QUESTION 18
You work as a project manager for ABC Inc. You are currently overseeing a project on a high-rise building site. Your prime concern is to ensure that cranes are used effectively for moving materials. You also have to ensure that delivery trucks do not have to wait in a queue and that workers on the upper floors are able to get their deliveries on time. Which type of scheduling would be required in such a scenario?

A.    Critical path scheduling
B.    Time-oriented scheduling
C.    Resource-oriented scheduling
D.    Network scheduling

Answer: C
Explanation:
Resource-oriented scheduling focuses on using and scheduling particular resources in an effective manner. This type of scheduling should be used whenever there are limited resources available for a project and the struggle for these resources between the project activities is intense. As a result, delays are likely to arise in such cases, as actions must wait until general resources become available. Resource-oriented scheduling is also suitable in cases where unique resources are to be used, such as when there is only one excavator available in an excavation operation. Answer option B is incorrect. Time-oriented scheduling is a time-scheduling method that focuses on determining the finishing time of a project. It also specifies the crucial precedence relationships among the activities involved in the project. In time-oriented scheduling, the appropriate time is allocated for the whole project through the successive stages of the project life cycle. Answer option A is incorrect. Critical path scheduling is a technique that calculates the minimum completion time for a project along with the possible start and finish times for the project activities. Answer option D is incorrect. Network scheduling provides a basis for obtaining facts for decision making.

QUESTION 19
You are the project manager for your organization. You need the oak cabinets for your project delivered by December 1 in order to install the floors around the oak cabinets by December 15. Your company’s procurement office generally takes 45 days to complete procurement orders. Based on this information, how should you schedule the lead time for the cabinet delivery?

A.    Cabinet procurement December 1, plus 45 days lead time
B.    Cabinet procurement November 15
C.    Cabinet procurement December 1, minus 45 dayslead time
D.    Cabinet procurement December 15 minus 45 dayslead time

Answer: C
Explanation:
The cabinet procurement and delivery must be completed by December 1. By scheduling the activity to finish on December 1 with minus 45 days lead time for procurement, the cabinets will arrive by the needed date.
Answer option A is incorrect. Lead time is always negative time, lag time is positive time. This choice would cause the cabinets to not arrive until 45 days after December 1. Answer option D is incorrect. This choice would cause the cabinets to arrive on December 15 when the floors are to be installed.
Answer option B is incorrect. This choice is not the best answer because it does not necessarily account for holidays, weekends, or other factors in the project calendar. By scheduling the cabinet for December 1 and working backwards through lead time, the project’s PMIS will account for these breaks in the project work.

QUESTION 20
Your project has a BAC of $750,000 and is 75 percent complete. According to your plan, however, your project should actually be 80 percent complete. You have spent $575,000 of your project budget to reach this point and you are worried about the project not being able to complete based on your current project budget. What is the to-complete performance index for this project?

A.    0.98
B.    -$16,677
C.    1.07
D.    0.94

Answer: C
Explanation:
The to-complete performance index can be found by using the formula (BAC-EV) /( BAC-AC) for a value of 1.07. The higher the value is from 1, the less likely the project will meet the BAC. To-complete Performance Index (TCPI) is the measured projection of the anticipated performance required to achieve either the BAC or the EAC.
TCPI indicates the future required cost efficiency needed to achieve a target EAC (Estimate At Complete).Once approved, the EAC supersedes the BAC as the cost performance goal. Any significant difference between TCPI and the CPI needed to meet the EAC should be accounted for by management in their forecast of the final cost. The formula for TCPI is as follows:
TCPI = {(BAC-EV) /( BAC-AC)}
Answer option A is incorrect. 0.98 is the project’s cost performance index. Answer option D is incorrect. This is the project’s schedule performance index. Answer option B is incorrect. -$16,667 is the project’s variance at completion.

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